hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Proctored Pharmacology ATI

1. Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production, reducing fluid retention, and lowering blood pressure. Option A, Anti-inflammatory, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not primarily reduce inflammation. Option B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to correct heart rhythm irregularities. Option D, Antifungal, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to treat fungal infections.

2. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.

3. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

4. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist, such as albuterol, and an inhaled glucocorticoid, such as beclomethasone, for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. This sequence is important because the beta2-agonist promotes bronchodilation, which enhances the absorption and effectiveness of the glucocorticoid. Instructing the client to administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler ensures optimal therapeutic benefit. Therefore, option B is the correct choice. Option A is incorrect because the timing of albuterol administration may vary based on the prescribed regimen. Option C is incorrect because beclomethasone is a controller medication, not a rescue medication, and should not be used during acute episodes. Option D is incorrect because beclomethasone should be shaken before use to ensure proper dispersion of the medication.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Duloxetine. Duloxetine is commonly used to treat fibromyalgia as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. It is also indicated for depression and diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Colchicine, Hydroxychloroquine, and Auranofin are not typically prescribed for fibromyalgia. Colchicine is primarily used to treat gout, Hydroxychloroquine for conditions like malaria and rheumatoid arthritis, and Auranofin for rheumatoid arthritis.

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