ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98/min, and blood pressure is 74/44 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Sodium bicarbonate
- C. Potassium chloride
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, where the client's blood pressure is significantly lowered due to Verapamil administration, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to reverse severe hypotension caused by Verapamil. It should be given slowly intravenously as it counteracts the vasodilation caused by Verapamil, helping to normalize blood pressure levels. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for low blood pressure. Potassium chloride and magnesium sulfate are not the appropriate choices to address hypotension caused by Verapamil.
2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?
- A. Varicella vaccine
- B. Rubella vaccine
- C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.
3. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Bisacodyl suppositories. Which of the following information should the provider include?
- A. Expect results within 15 to 60 minutes.
- B. Insert the suppository as directed by the healthcare provider.
- C. Keep the suppository at room temperature.
- D. Expect rectal burning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about Bisacodyl suppositories, it is important to include information about the common side effects. Rectal burning is a frequent side effect that can occur after using Bisacodyl suppositories, so the client should be informed to expect this discomfort. The onset of action for Bisacodyl suppositories is typically within 15 to 60 minutes, so the client should expect results relatively quickly, not in 6 to 12 hours. It is essential to follow the healthcare provider's instructions on how to insert the suppository correctly. Keeping the suppository at room temperature is sufficient; refrigeration is not required. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it addresses a common side effect and prepares the client for potential discomfort. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not focus on a significant side effect, proper administration, or storage requirements.
4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbed sleep due to frequent urination. Option B is incorrect as Furosemide can cause potassium loss, so advising to avoid foods high in potassium would not be appropriate. Option D is incorrect because taking Furosemide with meals may increase the risk of side effects and decrease its effectiveness.
5. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam.
- B. Your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam.
- C. Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam.
- D. Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Colesevelam is to take it with food and at least one glass of water. This helps to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option A is incorrect because Digoxin and Colesevelam should not be taken together. Option B is irrelevant to the administration of Colesevelam. Option C is unrelated to the specific instructions for taking Colesevelam.
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