Nursing Elites

1. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?

• A. Antidiuretics
• B. Diuretics
• C. Anticonvulsants
• D. Antidotes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.

2. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

• A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
• B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
• C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
• D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

3. A client is prescribed Propranolol for dysrhythmia. Which action should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Hold Propranolol if the client's apical pulse is greater than 100/min.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure after administering Propranolol.
• C. Assist the client when transitioning to a sitting or standing position after taking Propranolol.
• D. Monitor the client's potassium levels for signs of Propranolol toxicity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when administering Propranolol to a client with dysrhythmia is to assist the client when transitioning to a sitting or standing position. Propranolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness during position changes, so it is essential to help the client move slowly to prevent falls or injuries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because holding Propranolol based on pulse rate, monitoring blood pressure after administration, and monitoring potassium levels are not directly related to the common side effect of orthostatic hypotension associated with Propranolol.

4. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the albuterol at the same time each day.
• B. Administer the albuterol inhaler prior to using the beclomethasone inhaler.
• C. Use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode.
• D. Avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist, such as albuterol, and an inhaled glucocorticoid, such as beclomethasone, for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. This sequence is important because the beta2-agonist promotes bronchodilation, which enhances the absorption and effectiveness of the glucocorticoid. Instructing the client to administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler ensures optimal therapeutic benefit. Therefore, option B is the correct choice. Option A is incorrect because the timing of albuterol administration may vary based on the prescribed regimen. Option C is incorrect because beclomethasone is a controller medication, not a rescue medication, and should not be used during acute episodes. Option D is incorrect because beclomethasone should be shaken before use to ensure proper dispersion of the medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the client's sodium levels due to the potential adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. Incorrect Rationales: - Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is less likely to be caused by Hydrochlorothiazide; in fact, it can lead to hypokalemia. - Hypercalcemia (Choice C) is not a common adverse effect of Hydrochlorothiazide. - Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with Hydrochlorothiazide use.

Similar Questions