Nursing Elites

1. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?

• A. Antidiuretics
• B. Diuretics
• C. Anticonvulsants
• D. Antidotes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.

3. A patient is receiving spironolactone for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, can result in serious cardiac complications and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report any signs or symptoms of hyperkalemia to prevent potential adverse outcomes in the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not associated with hypernatremia, hyponatremia, or hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia is the critical finding that the nurse should report in a patient receiving spironolactone.

4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should instruct the client to report dyspnea since it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Monitoring and reporting dyspnea promptly can help in early detection and management of potential serious complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are not urgent findings requiring immediate reporting.

5. Why should the nitrate patch be off for 8 hours per day?

• A. “There is no reason to take the patch off each day.”
• B. “The patch can be addictive; leaving it off reduces the addiction.”
• C. “You should only leave the patch off for 15 minutes.”
• D. “Leaving the patch off for 8 hours per day helps to delay the development of tolerance.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Removing the nitrate patch for 8 hours each day is essential to prevent the body from developing tolerance to the medication. By allowing the body to have a drug-free period, the effectiveness of the medication is maintained over time. This practice helps in ensuring that the nitrate patch continues to provide its intended therapeutic effects without diminishing its efficacy. Therefore, it is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed schedule of removing the patch for 8 hours daily to optimize the treatment outcomes.

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