ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?
- A. Bilirubin
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.
2. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?
- A. Regular insulin
- B. Furosemide
- C. Valproic acid
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.
3. A client has been prescribed Phenelzine for depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Hearing loss
- C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a known adverse effect of Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression. It is caused by a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to symptoms like dizziness or fainting. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial during Phenelzine therapy to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hearing loss, gastrointestinal bleeding, and weight loss are not typically associated with Phenelzine use.
4. When assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Mental status changes
- B. Tremor
- C. Jaundice
- D. Pneumonia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that can occur in clients taking Gemfibrozil due to the potential development of liver impairment. Other symptoms of liver impairment may include anorexia and upper abdominal discomfort. Monitoring for signs of jaundice is crucial to detect and manage adverse effects of the medication promptly. Mental status changes (choice A) are not commonly associated with Gemfibrozil use. Tremor (choice B) is not a typical adverse reaction of Gemfibrozil. Pneumonia (choice D) is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use but can be a complication in some cases.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metformin is to take the medication with food. Taking Metformin with meals helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensures better absorption. Choice B, to avoid foods high in potassium, is not directly related to Metformin. Choice C, taking the medication at bedtime, is not a standard instruction for Metformin. Choice D, taking the medication every other day, is incorrect as Metformin is typically taken daily as prescribed.
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