Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?

• A. Bilirubin
• B. Protein
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.

2. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?

• A. Prone
• B. On the nonoperative side
• C. Sims'
• D. Semi-Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?

• A. Urine output
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Pain level
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

• A. Varicella vaccine
• B. Rubella vaccine
• C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
• D. Measles vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is safe for women to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine, which is recommended by healthcare providers to protect pregnant individuals from influenza. Vaccination with inactivated influenza vaccine during pregnancy not only provides protection to the pregnant individual but also confers passive immunity to the newborn during the vulnerable early months of life. The Varicella, Rubella, and Measles vaccines are live vaccines and are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause harm.

5. A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a prescription for Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin to treat a Peptic Ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take these medications with foo '
• B. These medications can turn your stool black.'
• C. These medications can cause photosensitivity.'
• D. The purpose of these medications is to decrease the pH of gastric juices in the stomach.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take these medications with food to reduce GI disturbances.

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