Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Dabigatran. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Store the capsules in a pill organizer.
• C. Crush the medication before swallowing.
• D. Expect frequent headaches while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with food.' Taking Dabigatran with food is recommended to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect associated with this medication. Food can help minimize stomach irritation and improve tolerability. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Storing the capsules in a pill organizer (B) is a good practice for organization but not a specific instruction for this medication. Crushing the medication before swallowing (C) is not recommended for Dabigatran as it is available as a capsule and should be swallowed whole. Expecting frequent headaches while taking this medication (D) is not a common side effect of Dabigatran and should not be anticipated.

2. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. What is a desired outcome of the drug Phenytoin?

• A. Decrease symptoms of PTSD
• B. Resolution of signs of infection
• C. Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation
• D. Prevention or relief of bronchospasm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation. Phenytoin is primarily used as an antiepileptic medication to manage and prevent seizures. It does not directly impact symptoms of PTSD (Choice A), resolution of signs of infection (Choice B), or prevention or relief of bronchospasm (Choice D). Therefore, the desired outcome of Phenytoin is to control seizures effectively while avoiding excessive sedation.

4. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. She reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What action should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the prescribed dose.
• B. Withhold the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare professional should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin. It is crucial to report any past allergic reactions to medications, as this information guides the provider in prescribing a safe alternative. Administering the prescribed dose without considering the client's history of developing a rash can lead to potentially severe adverse reactions. Changing the prescription to an oral form or administering an oral antihistamine does not address the risk of an allergic reaction to penicillin in this case.

5. A client is being taught about Terbutaline. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication will stop my contractions.
• B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
• C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
• D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. Therefore, the client demonstrating understanding by recognizing that the medication will stop contractions is the most accurate response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Terbutaline is primarily used to inhibit contractions in preterm labor, not prevent vaginal bleeding, promote blood flow to the baby, or increase prostaglandin production.

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