a nurse in a providers clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A healthcare professional in a provider's clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil. Which of the following medications currently prescribed for the client is a contraindication to taking sildenafil?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sildenafil is contraindicated with nitrates like isosorbide due to the risk of severe hypotension. Isosorbide is a nitrate that can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is essential to avoid concurrent use of isosorbide and sildenafil to prevent adverse effects. Phenytoin, metronidazole, and prednisone do not have significant interactions with sildenafil and are not contraindicated when used together.

2. A client has a new prescription for Raltegravir. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Raltegravir works by blocking the integrase enzyme, preventing the virus from integrating its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. By inhibiting this process, viral replication within the host cell is halted. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Raltegravir's mechanism of action specifically targets viral replication within the cell, not virus entry, exit, or attachment to the cell.

3. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.

4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

5. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. This recommendation helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with this medication. Food can help minimize nausea and other stomach-related issues that may occur when taking Levodopa/Carbidopa. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of protein-rich foods is not necessary with this medication. Muscle twitching is not an expected side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Anticipating relief of manifestations in 24 hours is unrealistic as it may take days to weeks for the full therapeutic effect of the medication to be achieved.

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