a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ceftriaxone which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A rash can indicate an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, which should be reported to the provider. It is crucial to instruct the client to discontinue the medication and seek medical attention if a rash develops to prevent potential serious adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough is not a common side effect of ceftriaxone, ceftriaxone is typically administered parenterally, and a yellow discoloration of urine is a harmless side effect due to the color of the medication itself, respectively.

2. A client is to receive Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. This is important to prevent aspiration until the client's normal pharyngeal sensation is restored, typically within about 1 hour after the procedure. Monitoring the insertion site for a hematoma, palpating the bladder, and maintaining the client on bed rest are not directly related to the administration of Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy. Therefore, these actions are not necessary in the immediate post-procedure care of a client receiving Tetracaine for a Bronchoscopy.

3. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to detect early signs of infection and prevent complications. Dizziness (choice A), urinary frequency (choice C), and dry mouth (choice D) are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are not the primary concerns that the nurse needs to address with the client.

4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.

5. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so monitoring the client's platelet count is crucial to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate an increased risk of bleeding, a known adverse effect of Clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's impact on platelet function.

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