ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
- B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
- C. This medication cannot be given orally.
- D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A rash can indicate an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, which should be reported to the provider. It is crucial to instruct the client to discontinue the medication and seek medical attention if a rash develops to prevent potential serious adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough is not a common side effect of ceftriaxone, ceftriaxone is typically administered parenterally, and a yellow discoloration of urine is a harmless side effect due to the color of the medication itself, respectively.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, which leads to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia. The other options, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and hypocalcemia, are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to occur as adverse effects.
3. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?
- A. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
- B. Draw a peak level 90 min prior to administering the medication and a trough level 90 min after the dose.
- C. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
- D. Draw a peak level at 0900 and a trough level at 2100.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.
4. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Celecoxib. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
- B. Decreases the risk of stroke
- C. Inhibits COX-1
- D. Increases platelet aggregation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction.' Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, increases the risk for a myocardial infarction due to its effect on suppressing vasodilation, which can lead to this adverse cardiovascular event. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke, inhibit COX-1, or increase platelet aggregation. It's crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the increased risk for a myocardial infarction when taking Celecoxib and emphasize monitoring for signs of heart issues and the importance of seeking prompt medical attention if symptoms occur.
5. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?
- A. Swelling of the ankles.
- B. Increased urination.
- C. Persistent cough.
- D. Dark-colored urine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.
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