Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client with a new prescription for Atorvastatin to treat Hyperlipidemia, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
• D. Expect your stools to turn clay-colored.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include when educating a client with a new prescription for Atorvastatin to treat Hyperlipidemia is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of atorvastatin, leading to an elevated risk of serious side effects such as liver damage and muscle problems. It is essential for the client to be aware of this potential interaction and to follow the nurse's advice to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Atorvastatin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Atorvastatin in the morning is a common recommendation but not the priority over avoiding grapefruit juice. Increasing intake of green, leafy vegetables is generally a healthy dietary choice but is not specific to the medication. Expecting stools to turn clay-colored is not a common side effect of Atorvastatin.

2. A client reports taking Aspirin about four times daily for a sprained wrist. Which of the following prescribed medications taken by the client is contraindicated with aspirin?

• A. Digoxin
• B. Metformin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Warfarin. Aspirin increases the effect of anticoagulants like warfarin by inhibiting platelet aggregation, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the use of aspirin is generally contraindicated for clients taking warfarin. Choices A, B, and D are not contraindicated with aspirin. Digoxin, Metformin, and Nitroglycerin do not have significant interactions with Aspirin, unlike Warfarin, making them safe to use concomitantly.

3. What is the pharmacological action of metformin?

• A. Blocks stimulation of beta1 and beta2.
• B. Blocks vasoconstriction and aldosterone.
• C. Acts at many levels in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect.
• D. Decreases hepatic glucose production.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin's primary pharmacological action is to decrease hepatic glucose production, leading to lower blood sugar levels and improved insulin sensitivity in the liver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metformin does not block stimulation of beta1 and beta2 receptors, vasoconstriction, aldosterone, or act in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect. Therefore, these options are not reflective of metformin's mechanism of action.

4. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?

• A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
• B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
• C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
• D. I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.

5. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's vital signs.
• B. Request a consult with a dietitian.
• C. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
• D. Request an order for an antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.

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