Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Bevacizumab is known to cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not typically associated with bevacizumab treatment. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of bevacizumab. Choice D, hypocalcemia, is not a recognized side effect of bevacizumab.

2. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

• A. Sore throat.
• B. Drowsiness.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Heat intolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

3. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Renal failure
• D. Aplastic anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

5. A client with a UTI and a history of recurrent infections asks why the provider has not yet prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should explain that the provider has to wait for the results of which of the following laboratory tests to identify which antibiotic to prescribe?

• A. Gram stain
• B. Culture
• C. Sensitivity
• D. Specific gravity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of a UTI, a sensitivity test is crucial as it identifies the most effective antibiotic to target the specific microorganism causing the infection. This test helps in prescribing the appropriate antibiotic for successful treatment and preventing antibiotic resistance. While a Gram stain and culture are important in diagnosing a UTI, the sensitivity test specifically determines the most suitable antibiotic. Specific gravity, on the other hand, is not related to identifying the appropriate antibiotic for a UTI.

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