Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Drink 2 liters of water daily.
• B. Avoid taking the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Limit vitamin C intake while taking this medication.
• D. Take an iron supplement while on this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol is to drink 2 liters of water daily. This recommendation aims to reduce the risk of kidney stones, a potential side effect associated with allopurinol use. Adequate hydration helps prevent the formation of uric acid crystals in the kidneys, which can lead to kidney stones. Therefore, encouraging increased water intake is essential in the management of clients taking allopurinol.

2. A client presents in the Emergency Department with chest pain. Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause chest pain?

• A. Arthritis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Gastric reflux

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arthritis is a condition primarily affecting the joints and is not known to cause chest pain. Peptic ulcer disease, myocardial infarction, and gastric reflux are conditions that can present with chest pain due to various reasons such as inflammation, ischemia, or reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, respectively.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbed sleep due to frequent urination. Option B is incorrect as Furosemide can cause potassium loss, so advising to avoid foods high in potassium would not be appropriate. Option D is incorrect because taking Furosemide with meals may increase the risk of side effects and decrease its effectiveness.

4. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Absolute neutrophil count
• C. Platelet count
• D. Total white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the platelet count to determine the effectiveness of Oprelvekin. The expected outcome for this medication is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Oprelvekin is a medication used to stimulate platelet production, making platelet count a crucial parameter to assess its effectiveness. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not specifically related to the action or effectiveness of Oprelvekin.

5. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.

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