a nurse is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells prbcs for a client who has severe anemi which of the following i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion. This reaction occurs due to ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product reduces the risk of administering the wrong blood type, which could lead to a life-threatening reaction. Checking for patency of the IV line (Choice A) is important but does not directly prevent an acute hemolytic reaction. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential for detecting transfusion reactions but does not prevent them. Staying with the client (Choice D) is important for early recognition of adverse reactions but does not address the root cause of preventing an acute hemolytic reaction.

2. Which medication is a beta blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

3. A client with angina asks about obtaining a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide is an organic nitrate used to manage angina. Concurrent use of sildenafil with organic nitrates, like isosorbide, is contraindicated due to the risk of fatal hypotension. It is essential for clients to avoid taking nitrate medications within 24 hours of using isosorbide to prevent serious complications.

4. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide to treat nausea. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting restlessness or involuntary movements is crucial as they can be signs of extrapyramidal symptoms, a potential side effect of Metoclopramide. These symptoms should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime, discontinuing it due to drowsiness, or expecting urine color changes are not relevant teaching points for Metoclopramide use.

5. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the provider include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication in the abdomen. Enoxaparin is administered as a subcutaneous injection in the abdomen to prevent bleeding complications. Injecting into the muscle or massaging the site can increase the risk of bleeding. Rotating sites between the arms and thighs is not recommended for Enoxaparin administration due to variations in absorption rates. Therefore, the provider should instruct the client to administer Enoxaparin in the abdomen for optimal effectiveness and safety.

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