ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before obtaining the blood product from the refrigerator.
- B. Obtain help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product.
- C. Take a complete set of vital signs before beginning the transfusion and periodically during the transfusion.
- D. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion. This reaction occurs due to ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product reduces the risk of administering the wrong blood type, which could lead to a life-threatening reaction. Checking for patency of the IV line (Choice A) is important but does not directly prevent an acute hemolytic reaction. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential for detecting transfusion reactions but does not prevent them. Staying with the client (Choice D) is important for early recognition of adverse reactions but does not address the root cause of preventing an acute hemolytic reaction.
2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a chest tube?
- A. Ensuring the chest tube is secured properly and functioning
- B. Checking for air leaks and ensuring drainage is working
- C. Ensuring chest tube drainage is below chest level
- D. Ensuring proper documentation of chest tube output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Proper documentation of chest tube output is crucial in the care of a patient with a chest tube. While ensuring the chest tube is secured and functioning, checking for air leaks, and maintaining drainage below chest level are important aspects of care, documentation of output is essential for monitoring the patient's condition, assessing the effectiveness of treatment, and ensuring appropriate interventions if needed.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse and report any significant increases. Choice B, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Hydralazine. Choice C, Hyponatremia, and Choice D, Constipation, are also not typically associated with Hydralazine use.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum glucose.
- D. Serum amylase.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
5. Which dietary supplement is often recommended for patients taking statins to lower cholesterol?
- A. Iron
- B. Coenzyme Q10
- C. Calcium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Coenzyme Q10 is often recommended for patients on statins because it may help reduce muscle pain, a common side effect of these medications. Iron (Choice A) is not typically recommended for patients taking statins to lower cholesterol. Calcium (Choice C) and Magnesium (Choice D) are not specifically indicated for addressing muscle pain associated with statin use, making them less suitable choices in this scenario.
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