ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.
2. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, what is important to monitor for?
- A. Intake and output
- B. Mental status changes
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Anorexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, monitoring mental status changes is crucial. Serotonin Antagonists can affect neurological function, potentially leading to alterations in mental status. It is essential to assess for any changes in behavior, mood, or cognition to ensure patient safety and prompt intervention if needed.
3. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should have a high-carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime.
- B. You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time.
- C. You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose.
- D. You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clozapine carries a risk for fatal agranulocytosis. To monitor for this serious adverse effect, it is crucial to check the client's white blood cell count weekly while they are on clozapine therapy.
4. A client has a prescription for Amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the nurse to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Serum creatinine.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum sodium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect that can be monitored by checking the client's serum creatinine levels. Regular monitoring of serum creatinine helps in early identification of kidney damage and allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choice B, serum potassium, is not typically associated with adverse effects of Amphotericin B. Choice C, serum sodium, and choice D, serum calcium, are not directly affected by Amphotericin B and are not primary indicators of its adverse effects.
5. A client has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products because calcium can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Instructing the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products will ensure optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods in relation to taking Ciprofloxacin.
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