a nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg po daily the amount available is furosemide oral solution 10 mg1 ml how many ml should the nurse a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

2. A client is to receive Tetracaine before a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. Tetracaine can affect the gag reflex, so it is important to prevent aspiration by maintaining the client NPO until the pharyngeal response is normal, which typically takes about 1 hour. Monitoring for the return of the gag reflex is crucial to prevent complications from aspiration during the first oral intake after the procedure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the effects of Tetracaine or the bronchoscopy procedure.

3. Following a stroke, a client has been started on clopidogrel (Plavix). Why is this medication being administered?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots. It is commonly used in patients who have had a stroke and cannot tolerate aspirin due to allergies or intolerances. Choosing clopidogrel in these cases helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of recurrent strokes.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has chronic angina. Treatment for the condition has been unsuccessful. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of chronic angina where initial treatment has not been successful, Ranolazine (Ranexa) is often prescribed. This medication helps by reducing the frequency of angina episodes. Atenolol, Nitroglycerin, and Sildenafil are also used in angina management but Ranolazine is more specifically indicated in cases of refractory angina where other treatments have failed.

5. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.

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