ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.
2. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with grapefruit juice.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate regularly.
- C. You may experience a rapid heart rate.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure and heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions. Patients should monitor their blood pressure and heart rate regularly to assess the medication's effectiveness and check for adverse effects like bradycardia or hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because Atenolol should not be taken with grapefruit juice, which can interfere with its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Atenolol typically causes a decrease in heart rate, not a rapid heart rate. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Atenolol.
3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide at bedtime (Choice A) is not necessary as it can be taken at any time of the day. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice B) is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Taking Furosemide with meals (Choice D) may lead to increased diuretic effects and frequent urination.
4. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this side effect, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for assessment and possible medication adjustment.
5. When teaching parents about a child newly prescribed Desipramine, the nurse should instruct them that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Constipation
- B. Suicidal thoughts
- C. Photophobia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is prescribed Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. It is crucial for parents to monitor the child for any signs of worsening depression or thoughts of self-harm and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any harm to the child. Options A, C, and D are potential side effects of Desipramine but are not as urgent or life-threatening as suicidal thoughts, which require immediate intervention to ensure the safety of the child.
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