ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.
2. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to detect early signs of infection and prevent complications. Dizziness (choice A), urinary frequency (choice C), and dry mouth (choice D) are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are not the primary concerns that the nurse needs to address with the client.
3. A client has been prescribed a Beta Blocker for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. Beta Blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Beta Blockers do not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypernatremia as adverse effects.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Neurotoxicity
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for symptoms such as peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, and tingling sensations is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia, neutropenia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with vincristine therapy.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
- A. Administer subcutaneously in a large muscle mass to prevent injury.
- B. Ensure that the medication is kept at room temperature until just prior to administration.
- C. Invert vial gently to mix well before withdrawing dose.
- D. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.
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