ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.
2. A 38-year-old patient’s vital signs at 8 a.m. are axillary temperature 99.6°F (37.6°C); pulse rate 88; respiratory rate 30. Which findings should be reported?
- A. Respiratory rate only
- B. Temperature only
- C. Pulse rate and temperature
- D. Temperature and respiratory rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Both an elevated temperature and an increased respiratory rate are abnormal vital signs that could indicate an underlying health issue. Reporting both of these findings is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention if needed.
3. A parent of a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is being taught by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Administer methylphenidate at bedtime.
- B. Increase stimuli in the child's environment.
- C. Administer an extra dose of medication if the child is overactive.
- D. Maintain a consistent bedtime routine.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Maintaining a consistent bedtime routine is essential for children with ADHD as it helps in managing their symptoms effectively. Consistency in bedtime routines aids in regulating the child's sleep patterns, promoting better rest, and ultimately improving their behavior and focus during the day.
4. The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Document that the pericarditis has resolved
- C. Ask the client to lean forward and listen again
- D. Prepare to insert a unilateral chest tube
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. Leaning forward can help bring the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect the rub. Option A (Notifying the healthcare provider) is incorrect because further assessment is needed before escalating the situation. Option B (Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved) is incorrect as the absence of a friction rub does not necessarily mean resolution. Option D (Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube) is incorrect as this intervention is not indicated for the absence of a friction rub.
5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
- A. I am frequently constipated.
- B. I have been urinating more frequently.
- C. My skin is peeling.
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
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