ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.
2. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase intake of protein-rich foods.
- B. Expect muscle twitching to occur.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. This recommendation helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with this medication. Food can help minimize nausea and other stomach-related issues that may occur when taking Levodopa/Carbidopa. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of protein-rich foods is not necessary with this medication. Muscle twitching is not an expected side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Anticipating relief of manifestations in 24 hours is unrealistic as it may take days to weeks for the full therapeutic effect of the medication to be achieved.
3. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
- B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
- C. This medication can be given orally.
- D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue ceftriaxone if a rash develops, as it could indicate an allergic reaction that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough development, oral administration, and yellow urine are not typically associated with ceftriaxone use and are not critical information that the nurse needs to emphasize in this scenario.
4. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication within 4 hours of the onset of symptoms.
- B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile saline.
- C. Administer heparin concurrently with the Alteplase infusion.
- D. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.
5. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.
- A. H
- B. ACE inhibitor
- C. Antifungal
- D. Beta agonist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Drugs with names ending in -pril are classified as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, heart failure, and diabetic kidney disease by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.
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