Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension, and a nurse is teaching about dietary management. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day.
• B. Increase your intake of high-fat foods.
• C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
• D. Limit your potassium intake to 3,000 mg per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day. Limiting sodium intake helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen hypertension by contributing to weight gain and other cardiovascular risks. Choice C is incorrect as green, leafy vegetables are beneficial for hypertension due to their high potassium and other nutrient content. Choice D is incorrect as limiting potassium intake is typically not recommended for hypertension management unless specified by a healthcare provider.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of urinary incontinence. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 50 mL in 2 hours
• B. Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Frequent urination at night
• D. Dark-colored urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dark-colored urine. Dark-colored urine can indicate various issues such as dehydration, liver problems, or blood in the urine, which could be concerning and require further evaluation by the provider. Choices A, B, and C are not necessarily findings that would need immediate reporting to the provider. A urine output of 50 mL in 2 hours might be low but could be influenced by various factors and might not always require immediate action. The presence of an indwelling urinary catheter is a known history and not a new finding. Frequent urination at night could be a symptom related to various conditions but may not be an urgent concern unless accompanied by other significant symptoms.

3. A client who is 14 weeks of gestation reports swelling of the face. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer an analgesic.
• B. Report this finding to the provider immediately.
• C. Administer an antiemetic.
• D. Monitor the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to report this finding to the provider immediately. Swelling of the face in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the client and the fetus. Administering an analgesic (choice A) is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the underlying cause of the swelling. Administering an antiemetic (choice C) is used to treat nausea and vomiting, which are not the primary concerns associated with facial swelling in this scenario. Monitoring the client's vital signs (choice D) is important but should be done after reporting the finding to the provider to guide further assessment and management.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Shave the hair at the insertion site.
• B. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
• C. Wear sterile gloves when changing the dressing.
• D. Change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.

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