Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer a bronchodilator.
• D. Administer oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased skin turgor.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Bounding pulse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.

3. A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site
• B. Shave the area around the insertion site
• C. Insert the catheter at a 15-degree angle
• D. Use an 18-gauge needle for insertion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the catheter at a 15-degree angle. This angle allows for easier venous access by ensuring proper catheter placement into the vein. Applying a tourniquet above the insertion site can help distend the vein for better visualization but is not the immediate action required for the insertion process. Shaving the area around the insertion site is not necessary unless there is excessive hair that may interfere with the insertion. Using an 18-gauge needle for insertion is a specific detail related to the equipment rather than the technique of insertion.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
• B. Heart rate: 95/min.
• C. Sore throat.
• D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.

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