ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
- B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer a bronchodilator.
- D. Administer oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.
2. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.
3. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?
- A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
- B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
- C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
- D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.
4. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event in healthcare?
- A. A patient falling in the hospital without injury
- B. A near-miss medication error
- C. An unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness
- D. A patient developing an infection during a hospital stay
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A sentinel event in healthcare is an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness. These events are serious occurrences that warrant immediate investigation and response to prevent their recurrence and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and D do not fit the definition of a sentinel event. While choices A, B, and D are serious incidents, they do not involve an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness, which is the defining characteristic of a sentinel event.
5. For a child with Kawasaki disease, which symptom is most indicative of the acute phase?
- A. Strawberry tongue
- B. Joint pain
- C. Rash
- D. Peeling skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Strawberry tongue. In Kawasaki disease, a 'strawberry tongue' is most indicative of the acute phase. This refers to the tongue appearing red and swollen with enlarged fungiform papillae, giving it a strawberry-like appearance. Joint pain (Choice B) is more commonly associated with other conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Rash (Choice C) and peeling skin (Choice D) are also seen in Kawasaki disease but are not as specific to the acute phase as the presence of a strawberry tongue.
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