ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client at 14 weeks gestation reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant.
- B. You should discuss your feelings with your provider.
- C. Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?
- D. When did you start having these feelings?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to use open-ended questions that allow the client to explore and express their feelings. Choice A encourages the client to describe their feelings, fostering open communication and providing an opportunity for the client to express themselves freely. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's feelings and may not promote open communication. Choice D focuses on the timing of the feelings rather than exploring the feelings themselves, making it a less therapeutic response.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has major depressive disorder and is taking tranylcypromine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Milk
- B. Bananas
- C. Yogurt
- D. Cured meats
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cured meats. Cured meats contain tyramine, which can lead to a hypertensive crisis in clients taking tranylcypromine. Bananas, milk, and yogurt do not contain significant amounts of tyramine and are safe for clients taking this medication. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid cured meats to prevent adverse effects.
3. A client is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place the client in a supine position
- B. Administer morphine for pain relief
- C. Apply a warm compress to the incision site
- D. Place a pillow under the client's knees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering morphine for pain relief is crucial for postoperative clients following a cholecystectomy to manage pain effectively. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can cause discomfort and hinder breathing. Applying a warm compress to the incision site can increase the risk of infection. Placing a pillow under the client's knees is not a priority intervention compared to pain management.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Provide chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is crucial in ensuring that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen to meet the body's demands. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be beneficial in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but may not be the primary intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may be necessary in cases of dehydration or shock but would not directly address respiratory distress. Providing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) can help mobilize secretions in conditions like cystic fibrosis but is not the first-line intervention for respiratory distress.
5. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
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