ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
2. A client has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking antacids at the same time as this medication.
- C. Take this medication if your heart rate is above 100/min.
- D. Notify your provider if you experience nausea or visual changes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client prescribed digoxin is to notify the provider if they experience nausea or visual changes, as these symptoms can indicate digoxin toxicity. Option A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Option B is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Option C is incorrect as taking digoxin based on heart rate alone is not appropriate.
3. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate
- B. Administer insulin
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate
- D. Administer a diuretic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL.
- B. I will take my insulin if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
- C. I will check my blood glucose level once a week.
- D. I will take my insulin only when I feel symptoms of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because consuming a snack when the blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL helps prevent hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. Choice B is incorrect because taking insulin when blood glucose is high (above 200 mg/dL) helps manage hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as checking blood glucose levels once a week is insufficient for proper diabetes management, which typically requires more frequent monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for symptoms of hyperglycemia to take insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Joint pain that improves with rest.
- B. Joint stiffness that improves with movement.
- C. Red, warm joints.
- D. Systemic inflammation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In osteoarthritis, joint pain that improves with rest is a common characteristic due to the relief obtained by reducing weight-bearing on the affected joint. Joint stiffness that improves with movement is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Red, warm joints are typically seen in inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, while systemic inflammation is not a primary feature of osteoarthritis.
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