Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

2. A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Decreased frequency of urination.
• C. Enuresis.
• D. Diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enuresis is the correct finding to expect in a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Enuresis, or involuntary urination, is a common symptom of UTIs in children. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is not typically associated with UTIs. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is less likely in UTIs as there is often an increased urge to urinate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of UTIs and is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.

3. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

4. A client with osteoporosis should be encouraged to perform which of the following interventions as part of the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to increase calcium intake.
• B. Apply heat to the affected joints to reduce stiffness.
• C. Encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss.
• D. Limit fluid intake to prevent swelling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Weight-bearing exercises help to strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not the priority intervention for preventing bone loss in osteoporosis. Applying heat to affected joints (Choice B) may help with stiffness but does not address the underlying bone loss in osteoporosis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is not relevant to managing osteoporosis and preventing bone loss.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Apply heat to the incision site.
• B. Keep the client's knee flexed while in bed.
• C. Place a pillow under the client's knee while in bed.
• D. Place a pillow under the client's lower legs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing a pillow under the client's lower legs is the correct intervention because it helps prevent pressure on the incision site and promotes circulation. Elevating the lower legs also aids in reducing swelling and improving blood flow. Applying heat to the incision site (Choice A) is contraindicated in the early postoperative period as it can increase inflammation and the risk of infection. Keeping the client's knee flexed while in bed (Choice B) may lead to contractures or limited extension of the knee joint. Placing a pillow under the client's knee (Choice C) may cause hyperextension of the knee, which is also not recommended post knee arthroplasty.

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