ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
2. A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
- B. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
- C. I should take this medication with food.
- D. I should avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.
3. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid foods that are high in potassium.
- B. I will avoid foods that are high in sodium.
- C. I will need to have my blood pressure checked regularly while taking this medication.
- D. I will need to have my potassium levels checked regularly while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 4,500/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 250,000/mm3
- D. Platelet count 100,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is lower than the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia, which is concerning in clients receiving chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range and would not be a cause for concern in a client receiving chemotherapy.
5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons?
- A. Respect the patient's beliefs
- B. Educate the patient on the importance of the transfusion
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Persuade the patient to accept the transfusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons, the healthcare provider should respect the patient's beliefs. It is crucial to uphold the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care, even if the provider disagrees. Educating the patient on the importance of the transfusion may be appropriate in some cases, but the initial response should always be to respect the patient's decision. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary as the decision lies with the patient. Persuading the patient to accept the transfusion goes against the principle of respecting the patient's autonomy and beliefs.
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