ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 88/min
- C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Hematocrit 42%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Heart rate of 88/min.' A heart rate of 88/min in a postoperative client can be an early sign of bleeding or other complications. It is essential to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate concern. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is normal, urinary output of 30 mL/hr may be adequate depending on the client's fluid status, and a hematocrit of 42% is within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting.
2. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. History of myocardial infarction
- C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
- D. Use of nitrates
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.
3. A newborn delivered at 41 weeks of gestation is showing signs of postmaturity. Which of the following findings is an indication of fetal postmaturity?
- A. Soft, flexible ear cartilage
- B. Smooth soles without creases
- C. Thin with loose skin
- D. Vernix caseosa covering the body
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Thin with loose skin.' Postmature newborns are typically thin with loose skin due to prolonged gestation. This may result from placental insufficiency, leading to reduced subcutaneous fat stores. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Soft, flexible ear cartilage (choice A) is a normal finding in newborns. Smooth soles without creases (choice B) are also typical in newborns. Vernix caseosa covering the body (choice D) is a protective, waxy coating found on newborns, which may be present in postmature infants as well.
4. What is the first medication to give for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing due to an allergic reaction. Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps relieve bronchospasm quickly. Cromolyn is more commonly used for the prevention of asthma symptoms rather than for acute treatment. Methylprednisolone and aminophylline are not the first-line medications for acute wheezing due to an allergic reaction.
5. Which food should be introduced first to a 6-month-old infant?
- A. Fruits
- B. Eggs
- C. Vegetables
- D. Meat
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vegetables, particularly pureed ones, are often recommended as a first solid food for infants because they are easy to digest and less likely to cause allergies. Fruits can be introduced later due to their natural sweetness, while eggs and meat are typically introduced after fruits and vegetables as they may pose a higher risk of allergies.
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