ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client is being taught about taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I will take this medication with 8 ounces of milk.
- B. I will inform my doctor if I experience diarrhea.
- C. I can discontinue this medication when I feel completely well.
- D. I can take this medication just before bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diarrhea can indicate the development of a suprainfection, which can be serious. Therefore, it is essential for the client to notify the healthcare provider if they experience diarrhea while taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Tetracycline with milk can reduce its absorption, discontinuing the medication prematurely can lead to treatment failure, and taking it just before bedtime may increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to the potential reflux of the medication.
2. A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV antibiotic to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?
- A. Administer an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Check the client's allergy history.
- D. Assess the client's vital signs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The first action the healthcare professional should take is to check the client's allergy history before administering the antibiotic to prevent a potential allergic reaction. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to antibiotics to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Administering an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic (Choice A) is not recommended unless an allergic reaction occurs. Monitoring the client's urine output (Choice B) and assessing the client's vital signs (Choice D) are important but not the first step in this situation. Checking the client's allergy history takes precedence to prevent adverse reactions.
5. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.
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