ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Edema
- B. Constipation
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.
2. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.
3. A client has a new prescription for Enfuvirtide to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?
- A. Bone marrow suppression
- B. Pancreatitis
- C. Pancreatitis
- D. Bone marrow suppression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While bone marrow suppression is not typically associated with Enfuvirtide, a more relevant concern is the risk of severe allergic reactions such as anaphylaxis. Enfuvirtide, an HIV fusion inhibitor, can cause local injection site reactions and systemic allergic responses. Monitoring for signs of allergic reactions, such as rash, fever, and difficulty breathing, is crucial to ensure the client's safety.
4. When starting therapy with Atenolol, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their pulse regularly, as a significant decrease may indicate bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate.
5. A client is starting therapy with rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever when starting rituximab therapy. Fever can be a sign of infection, which is a potential complication associated with rituximab. Early detection and treatment of infections are important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication's side effects. Therefore, fever is the most crucial symptom to report to healthcare providers.
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