a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving imatini which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

2. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it is essential to avoid salt substitutes containing potassium, which can further increase potassium levels in the body. This instruction aims to prevent potential adverse effects and ensure the client's safety while taking Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once a day in the morning, it can lead to hyperkalemia (so increasing potassium-rich foods is not advised), and it can be taken with or without food.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The healthcare provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to the potential to worsen the condition by further elevating intraocular pressure, leading to harm. Choosing option D, Glaucoma, as the correct answer is crucial for the client's safety and to prevent exacerbation of their eye condition. Options A, B, and C are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use and are unrelated to the pharmacological effects of this medication.

4. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and has muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as the one the client received. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby enhancing neuromuscular transmission and reversing muscle weakness caused by the neuromuscular blocking agent.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.

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