Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with topotecan. Which of the following findings should the professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Fatigue
• C. Sore throat
• D. Red urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sore throat.' Clients starting therapy with topotecan should be instructed to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of the medication. Infections can be serious in clients undergoing chemotherapy, so early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are potential side effects of topotecan, they are usually not as immediately concerning as a sore throat, which could signal a serious infection requiring prompt attention.

3. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Celecoxib. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction.' Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, increases the risk for a myocardial infarction due to its effect on suppressing vasodilation, which can lead to this adverse cardiovascular event. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke, inhibit COX-1, or increase platelet aggregation. It's crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the increased risk for a myocardial infarction when taking Celecoxib and emphasize monitoring for signs of heart issues and the importance of seeking prompt medical attention if symptoms occur.

4. Which of the following conditions is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. CHF
• B. HTN
• C. Nephritis
• D. Hypercalciuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nephritis is not commonly treated with Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is primarily used for managing hypertension (HTN) and congestive heart failure (CHF) by reducing blood pressure and fluid retention. It is not a standard treatment for nephritis, which involves inflammation of the kidneys. Hypercalciuria, characterized by excessive calcium excretion in the urine, is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide either.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Along with vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion, it can be an early indication of an overdose. Dry mouth is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is not a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Healthcare providers should closely monitor clients on Digoxin for symptoms like nausea to prevent serious complications.

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