ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Belimumab for a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
- B. Administer the medication by slow IV infusion over the recommended time frame.
- C. Dilute the medication in an appropriate solution as per manufacturer guidelines.
- D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should plan to take when administering Belimumab is to monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions. Belimumab is known to cause severe infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis in some cases. Monitoring for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial to detect and manage any adverse reactions promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because warming the medication, administering by slow IV infusion, and dilution are not specific actions needed for Belimumab administration. The priority is to monitor the client for potential hypersensitivity reactions to ensure their safety.
2. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.
3. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?
- A. Angina
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fluid retention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.
4. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to detect early signs of infection and prevent complications. Dizziness (choice A), urinary frequency (choice C), and dry mouth (choice D) are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are not the primary concerns that the nurse needs to address with the client.
5. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your fluid intake.
- C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access