ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Belimumab for a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
- B. Administer the medication by slow IV infusion over the recommended time frame.
- C. Dilute the medication in an appropriate solution as per manufacturer guidelines.
- D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should plan to take when administering Belimumab is to monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions. Belimumab is known to cause severe infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis in some cases. Monitoring for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial to detect and manage any adverse reactions promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because warming the medication, administering by slow IV infusion, and dilution are not specific actions needed for Belimumab administration. The priority is to monitor the client for potential hypersensitivity reactions to ensure their safety.
2. A client has a new prescription for Nevirapine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication with food to increase absorption.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in teaching the client about Nevirapine, an NNRTI, is to take the medication with food to improve gastrointestinal tolerance and prevent nausea. While absorption is not significantly affected by food, taking it with meals can help reduce adverse gastrointestinal effects. Choice A is incorrect because Nevirapine should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is generally true for most medications but is not specific to Nevirapine. Choice D is a good practice for medication adherence but is not specific to the administration requirements of Nevirapine.
3. A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Increased renal secretion
- B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
- C. Liver failure
- D. Peripheral vascular disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Liver failure impairs metabolism, leading to increased medication concentrations. When liver function is compromised, lower dosages are necessary to prevent adverse effects. Increased renal secretion is not a reason for lower medication dosages, as it primarily affects excretion rather than metabolism. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes would usually require higher dosages to achieve the desired effect. Peripheral vascular disease does not directly impact medication metabolism or dosage requirements.
4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access