a nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube which of the following actions should the nu
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an intermittent enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube requires flushing the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feeding. This action helps ensure patency and prevents clogging. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding does not address the need for pre-feeding tube flushing. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height of the feeding bag above the abdomen is typically regulated by healthcare facility policies and is not a universal standard.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse preparing to administer a controlled substance is to witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse. This practice is crucial to prevent misuse and ensure accurate documentation. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the controlled substance by oneself without proper witnessing is not in accordance with safety protocols. Choice C is incorrect as leaving a controlled substance unattended in a client's room poses risks of diversion or unauthorized access. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the administration and signing off at the end of the shift is important but does not specifically address the issue of witnessing the waste of a controlled substance, which is a critical step in ensuring proper handling and accountability.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.

5. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of metformin. Which of the following client statements demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because clients taking metformin should avoid alcohol as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not specific to metformin but rather a general recommendation for some medications. Choice B is a good practice for medication adherence but does not relate specifically to metformin. Choice D is inaccurate as weight gain is not an expected side effect of metformin.

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