Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
• B. Heart rate of 88/min.
• C. Wound drainage of 25 mL in 24 hours.
• D. Abdominal distention and rigidity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abdominal distention and rigidity may indicate a postoperative complication, such as bowel obstruction or peritonitis, and should be reported to the provider. While monitoring urine output, heart rate, and wound drainage are essential postoperative assessments, they are not as concerning as abdominal distention and rigidity, which could signal a more urgent issue requiring immediate attention.

2. A client with Raynaud's disease is being cared for by a nurse. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
• B. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
• C. Provide information about stress management.
• D. Give glucocorticoid steroid twice a day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress can trigger Raynaud's episodes, so managing stress can help reduce the frequency and severity of the condition. Maintaining a warm temperature in the client's room (Choice A) is important to prevent vasoconstriction and worsening of symptoms. Administering epinephrine (Choice B) is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease. Giving glucocorticoid steroids (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for Raynaud's disease and is not typically prescribed for this condition.

3. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL
• C. INR 3.0
• D. Ammonia 80 mcg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.

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