a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and has a history of utis which of the following statements should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client at 10 weeks of gestation with a history of UTIs is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is to advise the client to empty their bladder after intercourse to help prevent UTIs. Emptying the bladder after intercourse helps reduce the risk of UTIs by flushing bacteria from the urethra. Choice A is incorrect as drinking water before and after intercourse is not specifically related to preventing UTIs. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between orange juice consumption and UTI risk. Choice D is incorrect as taking a hot bath can actually increase the risk of UTIs by promoting bacterial growth.

2. A client expresses fear of surgery. Which response should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses fear of surgery, it is essential for the nurse to acknowledge their feelings and ask open-ended questions. This response shows empathy, validates the client's emotions, and encourages them to express their concerns further. Explaining the risks of the surgery in detail (Choice A) may increase the client's anxiety. Simply stating that many clients feel anxious before surgery (Choice B) does not address the client's specific fears. While reassuring the client about the surgical team's experience (Choice C) is important, it may not directly alleviate the client's fear.

3. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.

5. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving insulin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels. When a patient is receiving insulin therapy, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia, a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Monitoring potassium, calcium, or sodium levels is important for different medical conditions or treatments and is not directly related to insulin therapy.

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