ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness
- B. Inability to identify common objects
- C. Poor problem-solving ability
- D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In schizophrenia, clients often display an inability to identify common objects due to cognitive impairment. This is known as associative agnosia, where individuals struggle to recognize familiar objects, faces, or sounds. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head trauma or drug overdose. Poor problem-solving ability may be seen in various mental health disorders but is not specific to schizophrenia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is more commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders or somatic delusions, not a typical finding in schizophrenia.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Apples.
- B. White bread.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Grapes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.
3. How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.
4. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. Fractured tibia.
- C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
- D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?
- A. Bradypnea.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Hypertension.
- D. Diaphoresis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.
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