ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
- C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.
2. A client who has a prescription for insulin glargine is talking to a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will mix this insulin with my regular insulin before injecting it.
- B. I will store this insulin in the refrigerator after opening it.
- C. I will take this insulin twice a day.
- D. I will inject this insulin when my blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin glargine should be stored in the refrigerator after opening to maintain its potency. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins. Choice C is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically taken once a day. Choice D is incorrect because insulin glargine is usually taken regardless of blood glucose levels.
3. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Place the infant under a radiant warmer
- B. Move the probe site every 3 hours
- C. Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the probe
- D. Place a sensor on the index finger
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures accurate readings. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (Choice A) is not necessary for pulse oximetry monitoring. Heating the skin before placing the probe (Choice C) can potentially cause burns in infants. Placing a sensor on the index finger (Choice D) is not the standard practice for continuous pulse oximetry in infants.
4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?
- A. Almonds
- B. Spinach
- C. Yogurt
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. JVD.
- C. Crackles in the lungs.
- D. Hypotension.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.
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