a nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition tpn which of the following actions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid eating spicy foods.' Spicy foods can exacerbate symptoms of GERD by irritating the esophagus and causing discomfort. It is important for clients with GERD to avoid spicy foods to help manage their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with GERD should not lie down after meals as this can worsen symptoms, limiting fluid intake to only 1 liter per day may not be appropriate for everyone, and eating three large meals each day can put pressure on the stomach and worsen GERD symptoms.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.

4. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

5. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the unit due to a staffing shortage. Which of the following clients should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube can be delegated to an LPN as this involves routine postoperative care. Option A involves administering packed RBCs which requires assessment and monitoring for potential adverse reactions, not suitable for delegation to an LPN. Option B requires neurological assessment and close monitoring due to the concussion, which is beyond the scope of an LPN. Option D involves a client with a recent fracture and shortness of breath, which requires urgent assessment and intervention beyond the LPN's scope of practice.

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