Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

2. A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Polyuria
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.

3. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent dizziness.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• D. This medication can increase your blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent diuresis at night. Option C is not necessary as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food. Option D is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is used to lower blood pressure, not increase it.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hgb 10 g/dL
• B. Platelets 300,000/mm³
• C. WBC count 12,000/mm³
• D. BUN 18 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hgb 10 g/dL. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range for a pregnant client, indicating possible anemia, which is crucial to report during pregnancy to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Platelets, WBC count, and BUN levels within the listed values are generally within normal ranges for a pregnant individual at 28 weeks of gestation. Platelets play a role in blood clotting, WBC count helps in fighting infections, and BUN measures kidney function, all of which are typically expected to be within normal limits during pregnancy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Hypertension
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

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