Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of urinary incontinence. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 50 mL in 2 hours
• B. Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Frequent urination at night
• D. Dark-colored urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, dark-colored urine. Dark-colored urine can indicate various issues such as dehydration, liver problems, or blood in the urine, which could be concerning and require further evaluation by the provider. Choices A, B, and C are not necessarily findings that would need immediate reporting to the provider. A urine output of 50 mL in 2 hours might be low but could be influenced by various factors and might not always require immediate action. The presence of an indwelling urinary catheter is a known history and not a new finding. Frequent urination at night could be a symptom related to various conditions but may not be an urgent concern unless accompanied by other significant symptoms.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?

• A. Bilirubin.
• B. Albumin.
• C. Ammonia.
• D. Prothrombin time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Administer bronchodilators
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Check oxygen saturation
• D. Reposition the patient

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is crucial in managing a patient with respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. While administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, in a patient with respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Checking oxygen saturation is important, but the immediate intervention to address respiratory distress is providing supplemental oxygen. Repositioning the patient may be helpful in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention in managing acute respiratory distress.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 68/min.
• B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Vision changes.
• D. Respiratory rate 18/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.

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