Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will increase my intake of dairy products.
• B. I will eat more fresh fruits and vegetables.
• C. I will limit my intake of whole grains.
• D. I will consume more red meat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because increasing the intake of fresh fruits and vegetables can help manage blood pressure. These foods are rich in nutrients like potassium, fiber, and antioxidants, which are beneficial for individuals with hypertension. Dairy products are usually high in saturated fats, which can be detrimental to blood pressure control. Whole grains are generally recommended for their health benefits, including maintaining a healthy weight and heart health. Red meat is often high in saturated fats and can contribute to high blood pressure and other cardiovascular risks.

4. In an emergency department, a provider is assessing a client with an acute head injury following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following findings should be prioritized?

• A. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Anisocoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding is the clear fluid leaking from the nose, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak and potential brain injury. This requires immediate attention to assess for possible cerebrospinal fluid leak, which is a serious complication of head trauma and needs prompt intervention to prevent further complications. While a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 may indicate a mild alteration in consciousness, it is not as urgent as assessing for a cerebrospinal fluid leak. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms after head injuries but do not take precedence over assessing for a potential cerebrospinal fluid leak. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) is also important to note but is not as urgent as identifying a possible cerebrospinal fluid leak in this scenario.

5. When should discharge planning begin for a client admitted to a long-term care facility for rehabilitation after a total hip arthroplasty?

• A. One week prior to the client's discharge
• B. Upon the client's admission to the care facility
• C. Once the discharge date is identified
• D. When the client addresses the topic with the nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin upon the client's admission to the care facility. This early start allows the healthcare team to conduct assessments, set goals, and coordinate services for a smooth transition back home or to the community. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely arrangements, leading to optimal outcomes and continuity of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until one week before discharge, after the discharge date is identified, or until the client brings up the topic may lead to rushed decision-making, inadequate arrangements, and a less effective transition process.

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