ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Stool softeners help prevent straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding in individuals with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is more about reducing the risk of infection rather than managing thrombocytopenia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing dysphagia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer thickened liquids.
- B. Provide small bites of food.
- C. Encourage the client to eat quickly to avoid fatigue.
- D. Have the client lie supine after meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to administer thickened liquids. Thickened liquids help prevent aspiration, which is a common risk for clients with swallowing difficulties. Providing small bites of food (choice B) can help, but the priority is to modify the liquid consistency. Encouraging the client to eat quickly (choice C) is not recommended as it may increase the risk of aspiration and fatigue. Having the client lie supine after meals (choice D) can actually increase the risk of aspiration, especially in clients with dysphagia.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.
4. During a change-of-shift report, a nurse is receiving information about an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?
- A. The client's oxygen saturation is 95%
- B. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg
- C. The client has a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F)
- D. The client's heart rate is 88/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and stable. Reporting this information is crucial to monitor the client's condition postoperatively. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F) is normal, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the expected range for an adult female client, so these values do not raise concerns that require immediate reporting.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
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