what is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.

2. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.

3. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is providing teaching about gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of a school-age child. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the feeding over 30 minutes. This slow administration helps prevent complications like nausea. Placing the child in a supine position after the feeding can increase the risk of aspiration, making choice B incorrect. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days is important for infection control and hygiene but is not directly related to the administration process, making choice C incorrect. Warming the formula in the microwave is not recommended as it can create hot spots that may burn the child's mouth or esophagus, so choice D is incorrect.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which is paleness of the skin, is a common sign of anemia due to a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin levels. This results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to the paleness of the skin. Choice A, increased appetite, is not typically associated with anemia. Choice C, tachycardia (increased heart rate), can be present in anemia as the body compensates for decreased oxygenation. Choice D, hypertension (high blood pressure), is not a common finding in anemia; instead, low blood pressure may be observed due to decreased blood volume.

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