ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 30 seconds
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which can affect the metabolism and excretion of enoxaparin, potentially leading to increased drug levels and risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is crucial to report a high serum creatinine level before administering enoxaparin. Platelet count, aPTT, and sodium levels are not directly related to the administration of enoxaparin and would not impact its use; hence, they do not need to be reported before starting the medication.
2. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert the catheter 7.5 cm (3 in) into the urethra.
- B. Insert the catheter until urine flow is established.
- C. Cleanse the catheter with sterile water before insertion.
- D. Insert the catheter 5 cm (2 in) into the urethra.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to insert the catheter until urine flow is established. This helps ensure proper placement and reduces the risk of trauma. Choice A (7.5 cm) and Choice D (5 cm) provide specific measurements that may not be appropriate for all individuals as catheter insertion depth can vary. Choice C is incorrect as catheters should be cleansed with an appropriate solution such as sterile saline, not sterile water.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Gastric pH of 2.5.
- B. Bowel sounds every 4 hours.
- C. Diarrhea of 250 mL in 24 hours.
- D. Gastric residual of 150 mL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A gastric residual of 150 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying and should be reported to the provider.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days
- D. Heart rate of 76/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days can indicate fluid retention, which is a sign of worsening heart failure and should be reported. This rapid weight gain suggests a fluid overload, putting the client at risk for complications. A heart rate of 90/min is slightly elevated but not as concerning as a sudden significant weight gain. The serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not directly indicate worsening heart failure. A heart rate of 76/min is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns related to heart failure.
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