a nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warmth and redness in the calf are indicative of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication post-surgery that requires immediate attention. Reporting this finding promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a postoperative client and do not indicate a potentially life-threatening condition like DVT.

2. A client has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because enoxaparin should be injected into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect as enoxaparin should not be taken with food. Choice B is incorrect as enoxaparin should be injected subcutaneously, not into the muscle. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administering enoxaparin is not recommended.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while they are sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and provides support for the limb post-stroke. This positioning is important to maintain proper alignment and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing food on the left side of the mouth, providing total assistance with ADLs, and maintaining the client on bed rest do not directly address the specific needs related to unilateral paralysis and dysphagia post right hemispheric stroke.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions because it rapidly reverses the symptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and relaxing airway muscles. Corticosteroids, although helpful to reduce inflammation, are not the priority in the acute management of severe allergic reactions. Oxygen may be needed to support breathing, but it is not the initial priority. Antihistamines are not as effective as epinephrine in treating severe allergic reactions and should not be the first intervention.

5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

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