ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A client is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to lie flat in bed.
- B. Apply heat to the incision site.
- C. Use an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
- D. Place a trochanter roll under the client's knees.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using an abduction pillow between the client's legs is essential in maintaining proper alignment and preventing dislocation of the hip joint following a hip arthroplasty. Encouraging the client to lie flat in bed (Choice A) is not recommended as early mobilization is crucial for preventing complications. Applying heat to the incision site (Choice B) is not typically done immediately postoperatively. Placing a trochanter roll under the client's knees (Choice D) is not as beneficial as using an abduction pillow to maintain proper positioning.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert a tongue depressor into the client's mouth.
- B. Restrain the client's arms and legs.
- C. Turn the client onto their side.
- D. Place the client in a prone position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should turn the client onto their side. This action helps maintain an open airway by allowing saliva or any vomitus to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration. Inserting a tongue depressor (choice A) is incorrect as it can cause injury to the client's mouth and is not recommended during a seizure. Restraining the client's arms and legs (choice B) can lead to physical harm and should be avoided. Placing the client in a prone position (choice D) is dangerous as it can obstruct the airway and hinder breathing, which is not suitable for a client experiencing a seizure.
3. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Heart rate of 68/min.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Baked chicken
- B. Grilled salmon
- C. Steamed broccoli
- D. Fried foods
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with chronic pancreatitis should avoid fried foods because they are high in fat, which can exacerbate symptoms and lead to further complications. Baked chicken (choice A), grilled salmon (choice B), and steamed broccoli (choice C) are generally healthier options and can be included in a low-fat diet suitable for individuals with chronic pancreatitis.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Abdominal distention
- B. Burning sensation in the chest
- C. Constipation
- D. Frequent belching
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Burning sensation in the chest. A burning sensation in the chest is a classic symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Abdominal distention (Choice A) is not typically associated with GERD; it is more commonly seen in conditions like bowel obstruction. Constipation (Choice C) is not a hallmark symptom of GERD, as it is more related to gastrointestinal motility issues. Frequent belching (Choice D) can occur with GERD, but it is not as specific or characteristic as the burning sensation in the chest.
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