ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
- C. Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 9 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.
2. A client is prescribed albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication before meals.
- B. You might experience tremors while taking this medication.
- C. Limit your caffeine intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Albuterol can cause tremors as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness and preparedness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, limiting caffeine intake, or taking it at bedtime are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of albuterol like tremors.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Positive Trousseau's sign
- B. Increased deep tendon reflexes
- C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- D. Weak, thready pulse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A positive Trousseau's sign is a key finding in clients with hypocalcemia, indicating neuromuscular irritability. The other choices are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypercalcemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in hyperactive bowel conditions or diarrhea, not specifically related to hypocalcemia. A weak, thready pulse may indicate cardiovascular issues, such as dehydration, but it is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.
5. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should weigh yourself once a week while taking this medication.
- B. You should eat foods rich in potassium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- D. You should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.
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