a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Contact your provider if you experience visual changes.' Visual changes, such as blurred or yellow vision, can indicate digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin can be taken with antacids. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin. Choice D is incorrect because increased urination is not a common side effect of digoxin.

3. A nurse is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The guardian asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.

5. What is the appropriate action when a patient refuses treatment for religious reasons?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to respect the patient's decision. When a patient refuses treatment for religious reasons, it is crucial to respect their autonomy and beliefs. Persuading the patient to accept treatment could violate their rights and autonomy, going against ethical principles. Informing the healthcare provider is important, but the immediate action should be to respect the patient's decision first. Documenting the refusal is necessary for legal and documentation purposes, but it should not override respecting the patient's autonomy and right to refuse treatment based on religious beliefs.

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