ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client is 24 hr postoperative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which of the following findings is a priority to report?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on dressing
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Absent bowel sounds
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is indicative of decreased kidney function, potentially due to inadequate perfusion or other complications post-aneurysm resection. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent further complications such as acute kidney injury. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sounds are also important postoperative assessments but are not as critical as impaired kidney function in this scenario.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. aPTT
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.
3. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
- D. Urine ketones present
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.
4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for an arteriogram. Which of the following medications should the nurse instruct the client to discontinue 48 hours prior to the procedure?
- A. Atorvastatin
- B. Digoxin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Metformin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Metformin. Metformin should be discontinued 48 hours before an arteriogram due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Atorvastatin (Choice A) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not typically contraindicated before an arteriogram. Digoxin (Choice B) is a medication used for heart conditions and does not need to be discontinued before an arteriogram. Nifedipine (Choice C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and angina, and it is not necessary to discontinue before the procedure.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
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