ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A client is 24 hr postoperative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which of the following findings is a priority to report?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on dressing
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Absent bowel sounds
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is indicative of decreased kidney function, potentially due to inadequate perfusion or other complications post-aneurysm resection. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent further complications such as acute kidney injury. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sounds are also important postoperative assessments but are not as critical as impaired kidney function in this scenario.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Gastric pH of 2.5.
- B. Bowel sounds every 4 hours.
- C. Diarrhea of 250 mL in 24 hours.
- D. Gastric residual of 150 mL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A gastric residual of 150 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying and should be reported to the provider.
3. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Perform an ECG every 12 hours
- B. Place the client in a supine position while resting
- C. Draw a troponin level every 4 hours
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consultation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.
5. A nurse is planning to teach a group of clients about preventing low back pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Wear low-heeled shoes.
- B. Elevate the legs while sitting.
- C. Engage in prolonged sitting to rest the back muscles.
- D. Sleep on a soft mattress to prevent strain on the back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear low-heeled shoes.' Wearing low-heeled shoes helps prevent back strain by promoting proper posture. High heels can cause an imbalance in the body's alignment, leading to increased stress on the lower back. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevating the legs while sitting can help with circulation but does not directly prevent low back pain. Engaging in prolonged sitting can actually contribute to low back pain due to decreased muscle activity and increased pressure on the spine. Sleeping on a soft mattress may not provide adequate support for the back, potentially worsening back pain instead of preventing it.
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