Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 1.8
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 175,000/mm³
• D. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin IV to a client who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• C. Check the client's creatinine level before administering the medication.
• D. Assess the client for a history of allergies to antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the client's creatinine level before administering vancomycin. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, so assessing the client's renal function before administering the medication is crucial to prevent further kidney damage. Administering the medication over 15 minutes (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as renal function assessment takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important for assessing renal function but checking creatinine level directly provides more accurate information. Assessing for allergies to antibiotics (Choice D) is also important but not as essential as checking the creatinine level due to the nephrotoxic nature of vancomycin.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
• B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

4. What is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer anticoagulants
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Check oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps address hypoxia, a common complication of this condition. Oxygen therapy can improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Administering anticoagulants (Choice B) is a treatment option for confirmed pulmonary embolism but not the initial intervention. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important assessments but do not address the immediate need to improve oxygenation in a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serous drainage on the dressing
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Heart rate of 62/min
• D. Left foot is cool to the touch

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.

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