a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation which of the following laboratory va
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.

2. What is the recommended dietary restriction for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit fluid intake for a patient with chronic kidney disease. This restriction helps manage fluid balance to prevent fluid overload. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is essential for some patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary restriction. Increasing protein intake is usually not recommended due to the impaired kidney function in these patients. Increasing carbohydrate intake is also not a standard recommendation for patients with chronic kidney disease.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a Z-track technique to administer the injection.' When administering IM injections, using a Z-track technique helps prevent medication from leaking into subcutaneous tissues. This technique involves pulling the skin laterally, injecting the medication deeply into the muscle, and then releasing the skin. Choice A is incorrect because massaging the injection site after administering the medication can lead to increased blood flow and potential leakage of the medication. Choice B is incorrect as the needle should typically be inserted at a 90° angle for IM injections to ensure proper delivery into the muscle. Choice D is incorrect as aspirating for blood before injecting the medication is not routinely recommended for IM injections.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking the pulse before taking digoxin is crucial as it helps monitor the heart rate, as digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect. Option B is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C is incorrect because digoxin should be held and the healthcare provider should be contacted if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with food due to decreased absorption.

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