a nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate a therapeutic effect of furosemide, as the medication helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Choice A, increased shortness of breath, is incorrect as furosemide is used to relieve symptoms like shortness of breath. Choice B, weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb), is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention leading to weight loss. Choice D, bounding pulse, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact the pulse rate.

3. How should a healthcare provider handle a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing education about the importance of medication adherence is crucial in managing hypertension. By educating the patient about the significance of taking their medication as prescribed, the healthcare provider can help improve compliance and control the patient's blood pressure. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Exploring alternative treatments (Choice C) could be considered if the current medication is not suitable, but initial steps should focus on improving adherence. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) may be too delayed if non-compliance is an issue that needs immediate attention.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Providing information about stress management is essential when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease because stress can trigger episodes. Stress management techniques can help the client avoid triggers and reduce the frequency of episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, helps prevent vasoconstriction and can be beneficial for clients with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease; it is more commonly used for severe allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect because glucocorticoid steroids are not typically used in the management of Raynaud's disease.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

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