Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

• A. Serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL
• B. Blood glucose level 120 mg/dL
• C. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• D. Notify the provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.

3. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Increased serum sodium
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH), the nurse should expect hyponatremia. SIADH leads to excess water retention, diluting the sodium levels in the blood, resulting in low serum sodium levels. Choice A, increased urine output, is incorrect as SIADH causes water retention, leading to decreased urine output. Choice B, increased serum sodium, is incorrect because SIADH causes a dilutional effect due to water retention, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is unrelated to SIADH and not a typical finding.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will increase my intake of bananas.
• B. I will limit my intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. I will increase my intake of protein-rich foods.
• D. I will increase my intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

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