Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should be provided?

• A. Personal blogs about managing the adverse effects of diabetes medications.
• B. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
• C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
• D. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are a valuable resource for meal planning in diabetes. These lists provide guidelines for portion control and help individuals make healthier food choices. Personal blogs may not always provide accurate and evidence-based information. Food label recommendations are important but may not specifically address meal planning for diabetes. Diabetes medication information is essential but not the primary focus when educating about dietary management for type 2 diabetes.

2. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Monitor for leg swelling
• B. Encourage ambulation
• C. Check for redness
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way for a healthcare provider to monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to check for leg swelling. Leg swelling is a common symptom of DVT and monitoring for this sign is crucial for early detection and intervention. Encouraging ambulation may be beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the recommended method for monitoring an existing condition. Checking for redness may be useful in cases of superficial thrombophlebitis but is not specific to DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is more relevant for respiratory or cardiovascular conditions, not for DVT.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise.
• B. Pursed-lip breathing with exertion.
• C. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• D. Clubbing of the fingers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Tracheal deviation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.

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