Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

2. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the professional make in the medical record?

• A. Morphine 3 mg SC every 4 hr. PRN for pain
• B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
• C. Morphine 3.0 mg subq every 4 hr. PRN for pain
• D. Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr. PRN for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct entry for the medication in the medical record should include the abbreviation 'SC' (subcutaneous) for the route of administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately represents the prescription received. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the frequency and PRN indication. Choice C is incorrect due to the incorrect abbreviation 'subq' and the missing 'q' before the frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it uses 'SC' but the frequency abbreviation 'q' should be followed by the time interval.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Clay-colored stools.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Stridor.
• D. Elevated temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clay-colored stools are a classic finding in a client with cirrhosis. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired bile flow, resulting in pale or clay-colored stools due to a lack of bilirubin in the stool. Hypertension, stridor, and elevated temperature are not typically associated with cirrhosis. Hypertension may occur in cirrhosis but is not a consistent finding, stridor is more commonly associated with upper airway obstruction, and elevated temperature may indicate an infection rather than a direct result of cirrhosis.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid aspirin while taking this medication.
• B. I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.
• C. I will take this medication with an antacid.
• D. I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will avoid aspirin while taking this medication." Clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the intake of green leafy vegetables high in Vitamin K can interfere with the effects of warfarin. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because mild bruising is a common side effect of warfarin due to its anticoagulant properties.

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