Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. INR 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
• B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
• C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
• D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

3. A client has a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check for the presence of bowel sounds every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the NG tube every 24 hours.
• C. Provide the client with sips of water every 2 hours.
• D. Keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression by reducing the risk of reflux and promoting proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because checking for bowel sounds is not directly related to the care of a nasogastric tube. Choice B is incorrect as flushing the NG tube every 24 hours is not a standard nursing practice and may lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect because providing sips of water may interfere with the purpose of gastric decompression, which is to keep the stomach empty.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Baked chicken
• B. Bananas
• C. Lean cuts of beef
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Piloerection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

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