a nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy which of the following results indicates that the medication is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to promote airway clearance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential to promote airway clearance in pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Suctioning every 2 hours may be too frequent and can lead to airway trauma and irritation. Chest physiotherapy is not typically indicated for pneumonia unless there are specific complications. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary to maintain oxygen saturation but does not directly promote airway clearance.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Providing information about stress management is essential when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease because stress can trigger episodes. Stress management techniques can help the client avoid triggers and reduce the frequency of episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, helps prevent vasoconstriction and can be beneficial for clients with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease; it is more commonly used for severe allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect because glucocorticoid steroids are not typically used in the management of Raynaud's disease.

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