Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. INR 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation is being taught about nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should consume 1,200 calories per day.
• B. I should increase my daily intake of folic acid.
• C. I should drink 2 liters of water each day.
• D. I should limit my intake of iron-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increasing folic acid intake is crucial during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Option A is incorrect because calorie requirements during pregnancy vary and are generally higher than 1,200 calories per day. Option C is not specific to pregnancy nutrition teaching, although hydration is important. Option D is incorrect as iron-rich foods are typically recommended during pregnancy to prevent anemia.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 wks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. How far apart are your contractions?
• C. Do you have any active lesions?
• D. Are you positive for beta strep?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this situation is whether they have any active lesions due to the history of herpes simplex virus. This is crucial to assess the risk of transmission to the newborn during labor. Option A is not the priority in this case as the focus is on the client's history of herpes simplex virus. Option B is important but does not directly relate to the risk of herpes simplex virus transmission. Option D is unrelated to the client's condition and the current situation.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?

• A. Constipation.
• B. Drowsiness.
• C. Orthostatic hypotension.
• D. Respiratory depression.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.

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