Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Place a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures.
• B. Secure wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent.
• C. Apply elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury.
• D. Keep the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct use of restraints is crucial to ensure patient safety. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is a safe practice as it prevents falls and provides a level of protection without directly restraining the child. Placing a belt restraint on a child with seizures (Choice A) is inappropriate as it may restrict movement and cause harm during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to bed rails for an adolescent (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries and compromise circulation. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury (Choice C) is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of restraint and is not a standard practice in this situation.

2. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours
• C. Weigh the client weekly
• D. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid sitting in a chair for longer than 30 minutes.
• B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• C. I will bend at the hips to pick up items from the floor.
• D. I will avoid using a raised toilet seat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bending at the hips can dislocate the hip joint in clients who have had a total hip arthroplasty. This movement should be avoided to prevent complications post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Avoiding prolonged sitting, crossing legs, and using a raised toilet seat are all appropriate measures to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

4. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.

Similar Questions