a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

2. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing bone loss. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Walk for 30 minutes 3 times per week.' Walking is a weight-bearing exercise that helps prevent bone loss and improve overall health in clients with osteoporosis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is essential for bone health, simply taking a supplement is not sufficient for preventing bone loss. Option B is incorrect because weight-bearing exercises are actually beneficial for improving bone density and strength. Option D is incorrect because high-phosphorus foods do not play a significant role in preventing bone loss in osteoporosis.

5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

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