Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg
• B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
• C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. "I will monitor my blood pressure regularly."
• B. "I will keep my blood glucose level between 200 and 250 mg/dL."
• C. "I will take my insulin at the same time each day."
• D. "I will eat three large meals each day."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking insulin at the same time each day helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent complications.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
• D. Serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range and indicates hypokalemia, which should be reported to the provider. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not critically high. A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range. A serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL is also within the normal range.

4. A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
• B. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
• C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
• D. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.

5. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Take this medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication.
• D. Chew the medication for faster absorption.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction when taking alendronate is to remain upright for 30 minutes after administration. This helps prevent esophageal irritation, a known side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option B is incorrect as taking alendronate with food decreases its absorption. Option D is incorrect as alendronate should be swallowed whole with a full glass of water and not chewed.

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