a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

2. A client requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it ensures that the decision to use seclusion is based on appropriate justifications and helps in monitoring the client's progress and response to the intervention. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is not directly related to the need for seclusion. Discussing the client's behavior prior to seclusion (Choice C) may not be appropriate at the moment when immediate action is required to prevent harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but not as immediate as documenting the behavior prior to seclusion.

3. A client receiving warfarin is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin to reduce the risk of bleeding, as both medications can thin the blood. Choice A is incorrect because it is essential to eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables to maintain a steady intake of Vitamin K, which can impact warfarin's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect although important because INR checks are necessary but do not specifically show an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because while taking warfarin at the same time each day is beneficial for consistency, it does not directly address the interaction with aspirin.

4. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH), the nurse should expect hyponatremia. SIADH leads to excess water retention, diluting the sodium levels in the blood, resulting in low serum sodium levels. Choice A, increased urine output, is incorrect as SIADH causes water retention, leading to decreased urine output. Choice B, increased serum sodium, is incorrect because SIADH causes a dilutional effect due to water retention, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is unrelated to SIADH and not a typical finding.

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