a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider
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ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

2. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to prevent injury?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial for preventing bone density loss in clients with osteoporosis. These exercises help strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Option B, avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline, is not directly related to preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option C, avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods, is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not specifically address preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option D, splinting the affected area, is not a standard recommendation for preventing injury in osteoporosis.

4. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.

5. Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage atrial fibrillation by controlling heart rate. While Warfarin is used to prevent blood clots, it is not primarily used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Aspirin is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation and is generally not recommended for rhythm control. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, but it is not typically prescribed as the primary medication for managing atrial fibrillation.

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