a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is crucial in ensuring that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen to meet the body's demands. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be beneficial in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but may not be the primary intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may be necessary in cases of dehydration or shock but would not directly address respiratory distress. Providing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) can help mobilize secretions in conditions like cystic fibrosis but is not the first-line intervention for respiratory distress.

3. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

4. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is crucial in rapidly correcting dehydration and restoring fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids may not be sufficient in cases of severe dehydration where intravenous rehydration is needed. Monitoring electrolytes is important but administering fluids takes precedence in severe dehydration. Performing a neurological exam is not the primary intervention for severe dehydration.

5. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is an appropriate intervention for managing mania in a client with bipolar disorder. During a manic episode, individuals often have increased energy levels, decreased need for sleep, and may engage in high-risk behaviors. Encouraging regular rest periods can help reduce stimulation and promote relaxation, which may assist in stabilizing mood. Choices A and B are not as effective in managing manic symptoms, as they do not directly address the client's need for rest and relaxation. Choice D is inappropriate because placing the client in seclusion can increase feelings of anxiety and agitation, worsening the manic episode.

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