Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Potassium-sparing diuretics
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Loop diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following client histories is a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

• A. Recent surgery
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Bleeding disorder
• D. Uncontrolled hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Uncontrolled hypertension. Clopidogrel should not be administered to clients with uncontrolled hypertension due to the increased risk of bleeding. Recent surgery, peptic ulcer disease, and bleeding disorders are not absolute contraindications for clopidogrel administration.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Vomiting
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

4. A client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain has a decreased respiratory rate from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Flumazenil
• B. Naloxone
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer as it is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Hydromorphone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression at high doses. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes with opioids at receptor sites, reversing the effects of opioids like hydromorphone. Flumazenil (Choice A) is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for toxin ingestion to prevent absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and would not be the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.

5. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?

• A. Bowel sounds
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Fluid balance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.

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