ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Fluid balance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.
2. A nurse is providing care to a client with staphylococcus epidermidis who is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with the antibiotic therapy.
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Constipation
- C. Infusion reaction
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Infusion reaction. Vancomycin can cause infusion reactions like 'Red Man Syndrome,' which involves rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Hepatotoxicity (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of vancomycin. Constipation (choice B) is not typically associated with vancomycin use. Immunosuppression (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of vancomycin therapy.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following client history findings requires the nurse to question the administration of this medication?
- A. Osteoporosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Peptic ulcer disease
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peptic ulcer disease. Methotrexate can exacerbate peptic ulcer disease, leading to serious complications. This finding warrants questioning the administration of methotrexate to prevent harm to the client. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with methotrexate use. Osteoporosis, hypertension, and immunosuppression are not typically reasons to question the administration of methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis.
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Productive cough
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Vomiting
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus. Available is morphine sulfate 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.4 mL
- C. 0.6 mL
- D. 0.8 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. To calculate this, divide the desired dose (2 mg) by the concentration of the available solution (10 mg/mL). 2 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and desired dose.
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