ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Fluid balance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.
2. A client has been prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education related to this medication?
- A. This medication is prescribed for long-term therapy prophylaxis against anginal attacks
- B. Do not crush this medication
- C. Take the medication in the evening after dinner
- D. Do not take an additional tablet if you experience chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because isosorbide mononitrate is used for long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks. Choice B is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate should not be crushed. Choice C does not specify a particular time for medication administration. Choice D is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate is not meant to be taken as needed for chest pain; it is part of a long-term therapy plan.
3. A nurse is providing care to a client with staphylococcus epidermidis who is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with the antibiotic therapy.
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Constipation
- C. Infusion reaction
- D. Immunosuppression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Infusion reaction. Vancomycin can cause infusion reactions like 'Red Man Syndrome,' which involves rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Hepatotoxicity (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of vancomycin. Constipation (choice B) is not typically associated with vancomycin use. Immunosuppression (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of vancomycin therapy.
4. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Constipation
- B. Facial flushing
- C. Hypotension
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.
5. A client is receiving a dopamine infusion via a peripheral IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take if the IV site appears infiltrated?
- A. Slow the infusion and continue to monitor the site
- B. Stop the infusion
- C. Apply a warm compress to the site
- D. Apply a cold compress to the site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When an IV site appears infiltrated, it indicates that the medication is leaking into the surrounding tissues. In such a situation, the infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because slowing the infusion would still allow the medication to leak into the tissues. Choices C and D are also incorrect as applying compresses can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by infiltration.
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