ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A nurse is preparing to administer ondansetron to a client. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse expect from this medication?
- A. Decreased nausea
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Relief of headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic medication, which means it is used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Therefore, the nurse administering ondansetron should expect a therapeutic effect of decreased nausea. Choice B, increased appetite, is incorrect as ondansetron does not affect appetite. Choice C, increased heart rate, is incorrect as ondansetron does not have a direct effect on heart rate. Choice D, relief of headache, is also incorrect as the primary therapeutic effect of ondansetron is to alleviate nausea and vomiting, not headaches.
2. A client is prescribed HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, atorvastatin. Which of the following should be monitored while this medication is prescribed?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Renal function tests
- C. Visual acuity screening
- D. Hearing screenings
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it essential to monitor liver function tests regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin primarily affects the liver, not the kidneys, vision, or hearing.
3. Before administering blood products, which action should be taken?
- A. Assess the client's temperature
- B. Document client response
- C. Prime IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride
- D. Administer epinephrine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: Before administering blood products, the client's temperature must be assessed to establish a baseline and monitor for transfusion reactions. Choice B is incorrect because documenting client response should occur after administering the blood products. Choice C is incorrect as priming IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride is not directly related to assessing the client before administering blood products. Choice D is incorrect because administering epinephrine is not a routine action before administering blood products.
4. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?
- A. Calcium channel blockers
- B. Potassium-sparing diuretics
- C. Beta blockers
- D. Loop diuretics
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Productive cough
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Vomiting
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.
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