Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving a dopamine infusion via a peripheral IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take if the IV site appears infiltrated?

• A. Slow the infusion and continue to monitor the site
• B. Stop the infusion
• C. Apply a warm compress to the site
• D. Apply a cold compress to the site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an IV site appears infiltrated, it indicates that the medication is leaking into the surrounding tissues. In such a situation, the infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because slowing the infusion would still allow the medication to leak into the tissues. Choices C and D are also incorrect as applying compresses can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by infiltration.

2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
• C. Slow the infusion rate
• D. Administer diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.

3. A 52-year-old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects is not associated with this therapy?

• A. Tolerance
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Headache
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Productive cough. Nitroglycerin therapy can lead to adverse effects such as tolerance, orthostatic hypotension, and headache. However, it is not known to cause a productive cough. Tolerance may develop over time, requiring dose adjustments. Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Headache is a common side effect due to vasodilation of cranial blood vessels. Productive cough is not a recognized adverse effect associated with transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.

4. A client with an artificial heart valve is prescribed warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

• A. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X. The prothrombin time (PT) measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. Monitoring PT helps assess the time it takes for the blood to clot, ensuring that the anticoagulant effect is within the desired range. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin (Hgb) measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, bleeding time assesses the time it takes for bleeding to stop, and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

5. A 55-year-old client has levothyroxine ordered. Which of the below past medical history concerns may contraindicate with her medication management of hypothyroidism?

• A. Scleroderma
• B. Osteoporosis
• C. Asthma
• D. Peripheral Vascular Disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a concern with levothyroxine as it can increase the risk for fractures, particularly in older adults. Levothyroxine treatment can exacerbate bone loss in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with levothyroxine therapy for hypothyroidism.

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