Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving a dopamine infusion via a peripheral IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take if the IV site appears infiltrated?

• A. Slow the infusion and continue to monitor the site
• B. Stop the infusion
• C. Apply a warm compress to the site
• D. Apply a cold compress to the site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an IV site appears infiltrated, it indicates that the medication is leaking into the surrounding tissues. In such a situation, the infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because slowing the infusion would still allow the medication to leak into the tissues. Choices C and D are also incorrect as applying compresses can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by infiltration.

2. A client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain has a decreased respiratory rate from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Flumazenil
• B. Naloxone
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer as it is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Hydromorphone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression at high doses. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes with opioids at receptor sites, reversing the effects of opioids like hydromorphone. Flumazenil (Choice A) is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for toxin ingestion to prevent absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and would not be the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.

3. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation
• B. Facial flushing
• C. Hypotension
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?

• A. Asthma
• B. Renal failure
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.

5. A client has been prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

• A. Potassium supplements
• B. Ciprofloxacin
• C. Escitalopram
• D. Magnesium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium supplements and potassium-sparing diuretics due to the risk of hyperkalemia. This interaction can lead to dangerously high levels of potassium in the blood, which can be harmful. Choice B, Ciprofloxacin, is not typically associated with a significant interaction with lisinopril. Choice C, Escitalopram, is an antidepressant and does not have a known significant interaction with lisinopril regarding potassium levels. Choice D, Magnesium supplements, are generally safe to take with lisinopril and do not pose a significant risk of hyperkalemia.

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