Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.

2. Disulfiram is taken by a client daily for abstinence maintenance. What is an adverse effect of this therapy?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Wernicke's aphasia
• C. Suicidal ideations
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Disulfiram is known to cause hepatotoxicity as a severe adverse effect. This occurs due to the inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde when alcohol is consumed. Wernicke's aphasia (Choice B) is a language disorder unrelated to disulfiram therapy. Suicidal ideations (Choice C) may be associated with certain medications, but it is not a common adverse effect of disulfiram. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of disulfiram.

3. A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?

• A. Asthma
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachydysrhythmias
• D. Urolithiasis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Clients with asthma should avoid Beta2 Blockade agents like propranolol as they can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially worsening asthma symptoms. Choice B, hypertension, is not a contraindication for propranolol; in fact, it is commonly prescribed for hypertension. Choice C, tachydysrhythmias, is often an indication for propranolol due to its antiarrhythmic properties. Choice D, urolithiasis, does not directly impact the use of propranolol.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?

• A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
• B. Client allergy to strawberries
• C. Client history of genital herpes
• D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pregnancy or the possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks is a contraindication for receiving the MMR vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberries, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication to the MMR vaccine.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client with hypertension. Which of the following should the nurse assess prior to administering this medication?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood pressure. Before administering metoprolol, a beta-blocker commonly used to treat hypertension, the nurse should assess the client's blood pressure. Metoprolol works by lowering blood pressure and reducing the workload on the heart. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to ensure it is within the acceptable range to administer the medication safely. Choices A, B, and C (Temperature, Heart rate, Respiratory rate) are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically required before administering metoprolol for hypertension.

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