ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medication class benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the below clients?
- A. A client with glaucoma
- B. A client with renal failure
- C. A client with hypertension
- D. A client with insomnia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously in clients with glaucoma because these medications can increase intraocular pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because renal failure, hypertension, and insomnia are not contraindications for administering benzodiazepines.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. Which of the following client assessments requires immediate intervention?
- A. Platelet count of 95,000/mm³
- B. Blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg
- C. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute
- D. Pain at the injection site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A platelet count of 95,000/mm³ requires immediate intervention as it is low and increases the risk of bleeding, which is a potential complication of enoxaparin therapy. Low platelet counts can predispose the patient to hemorrhage, and administering anticoagulants like enoxaparin in such cases can further increase the bleeding risk. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during anticoagulant therapy to prevent serious bleeding complications. The other options do not pose immediate risks related to enoxaparin therapy. A slightly elevated blood pressure, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, and pain at the injection site are common findings that may not warrant immediate intervention in this context.
4. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Constipation
- B. Facial flushing
- C. Hypotension
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer bisacodyl suppository to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Don sterile gloves
- B. Lubricate index finger
- C. Use a rectal applicator for insertion
- D. Position client supine with knees bent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action when administering a bisacodyl suppository is to lubricate the index finger for easier insertion. Using a rectal applicator for insertion is not recommended for bisacodyl suppositories. Positioning the client supine with knees bent is not necessary for the administration of a bisacodyl suppository. While wearing gloves is important for infection control, sterile gloves are not required for this procedure.
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