Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. Which of the following client assessments requires immediate intervention?

• A. Platelet count of 95,000/mm³
• B. Blood pressure of 145/90 mmHg
• C. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute
• D. Pain at the injection site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A platelet count of 95,000/mm³ requires immediate intervention as it is low and increases the risk of bleeding, which is a potential complication of enoxaparin therapy. Low platelet counts can predispose the patient to hemorrhage, and administering anticoagulants like enoxaparin in such cases can further increase the bleeding risk. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during anticoagulant therapy to prevent serious bleeding complications. The other options do not pose immediate risks related to enoxaparin therapy. A slightly elevated blood pressure, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, and pain at the injection site are common findings that may not warrant immediate intervention in this context.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes and a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that the nurse should prepare in the insulin syringe?

• A. 14 units
• B. 28 units
• C. 32 units
• D. 42 units

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should combine both orders of insulin in the same syringe. To prepare the correct dose, the nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first (14 units) and then the NPH insulin (28 units), totaling 42 units. This combination ensures the client receives the prescribed doses of both types of insulin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the nurse needs to prepare and administer both types of insulin as prescribed, resulting in a total of 42 units in the syringe.

4. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

5. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Potassium-sparing diuretics
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Loop diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

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