ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Weigh yourself daily.
- C. Take potassium supplements as needed.
- D. Decrease intake of foods high in sodium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because potassium supplements should only be taken if prescribed by a healthcare provider due to the risk of hyperkalemia with furosemide. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing sodium intake is generally a good dietary practice but not a specific instruction related to furosemide therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who asks about a prescription for propranolol. The nurse should inform the client that this medication is contraindicated in clients with a history of which of the following conditions?
- A. Asthma
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Depression
- D. Migraines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a history of asthma because it can cause bronchospasms due to its non-selective beta-blocking properties. By blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs, propranolol can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially triggering asthma symptoms and exacerbating respiratory issues. Asthma patients should avoid medications like propranolol that can worsen their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as propranolol is not contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, depression, or migraines. In fact, propranolol is sometimes used in the treatment of migraines and certain types of glaucoma.
3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.
4. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will reduce my sodium intake.
- B. I should increase my water intake.
- C. I will notify my doctor if I develop chest pain.
- D. I should take this medication with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.
5. A client with brain cancer and headaches is prescribed dexamethasone. What is the purpose of this adjuvant medication?
- A. To decrease inflammation and swelling
- B. To improve concentration
- C. To induce sedation
- D. To treat depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer to decrease inflammation and swelling. It helps reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor, ultimately alleviating headaches. The purpose of prescribing dexamethasone in this case is not to improve concentration (choice B), induce sedation (choice C), or treat depression (choice D). Methylphenidate, a stimulant, is used for conditions like ADHD, not for brain cancer. Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, is primarily used for anxiety and itching, not for brain cancer. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, not specifically for brain cancer-related headaches.
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