Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide at bedtime (Choice A) is not necessary as it can be taken at any time of the day. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice B) is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Taking Furosemide with meals (Choice D) may lead to increased diuretic effects and frequent urination.

3. A client is receiving chemotherapy and has a prescription for ondansetron IV for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Tremors
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Ondansetron can cause tremors as an adverse effect. Monitoring for tremors is essential as it can indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Hypotension (choice A) and bradycardia (choice B) are not commonly associated with ondansetron. Urinary retention (choice D) is also not a typical adverse effect of ondansetron, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.

4. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

5. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyponatremia is a potential adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide due to its diuretic action. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause sodium and water loss, potentially leading to hyponatremia. Monitoring for symptoms such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps can help detect hyponatremia early. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is more commonly associated with potassium-sparing diuretics rather than thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide.

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