Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 6.5 mL
• B. 7 mL
• C. 5 mL
• D. 8 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen per dose to achieve the desired 650 mg dose for pain relief. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the volume required based on the concentration of the liquid acetaminophen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the concentration of the liquid medication and the desired dose.

3. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug isoflurane?

• A. Elevated lipid levels
• B. Nausea
• C. Increased blood flow to the brain
• D. Decreased respiratory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isoflurane is not known to cause elevated lipid levels. Common effects of isoflurane include nausea, increased blood flow to the brain, and decreased respiratory function. Elevated lipid levels are not typically associated with the administration of isoflurane, making choice A the correct answer.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as placing the client at risk for lactic acidosis?

• A. Metformin
• B. Metoprolol
• C. Lisinopril
• D. Insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is known to have a risk of causing lactic acidosis, particularly in clients with renal impairment or predisposing conditions. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use that can be life-threatening. Metoprolol, Lisinopril, and Insulin do not have a known association with lactic acidosis. Healthcare professionals should monitor clients prescribed metformin carefully, especially those with risk factors, to detect and manage lactic acidosis promptly.

5. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
• C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
• D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.

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