Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription lacks the frequency of medication administration, which is crucial for ensuring appropriate use. In this case, the frequency of when the medication can be taken needs to be clarified with the provider to provide safe and effective care for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a contraindication to receiving this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Fever
• D. Rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, is contraindicated in clients with bradycardia as it can further lower the heart rate, potentially leading to more serious complications. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below 60 beats per minute, and administering metoprolol in such cases can exacerbate this condition, causing adverse effects on cardiac output. Hypertension, fever, and rash are not contraindications for metoprolol administration.

3. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Absolute neutrophil count
• C. Platelet count
• D. Total white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the platelet count to determine the effectiveness of Oprelvekin. The expected outcome for this medication is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Oprelvekin is a medication used to stimulate platelet production, making platelet count a crucial parameter to assess its effectiveness. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not specifically related to the action or effectiveness of Oprelvekin.

4. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

5. When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that affects the gums. It is crucial for the client to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent oral health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While the timing of medication administration and dietary considerations are important, they are not directly related to preventing the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia caused by Phenytoin.

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