Nursing Elites

1. When administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the healthcare provider observes various signs and symptoms of an overdose. Which of the following should the healthcare provider give to reverse digoxin toxicity?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Digibind
• D. Flumazenil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digibind, also known as Digoxin immune Fab, is the specific antidote used to treat digoxin toxicity. It works by binding to digoxin in the body, forming a complex that can be excreted by the kidneys, thereby reversing the toxic effects of digoxin overdose. Naloxone is used for opioid overdoses, not digoxin toxicity. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin overdose. Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, not digoxin toxicity.

2. When starting a new prescription for prednisone, which instruction should the nurse include for the client?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
• C. Avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting a new prescription for prednisone is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, emphasizing the importance of gradual tapering under healthcare provider guidance. Increasing potassium-rich foods may be necessary based on individual needs, but it is not the priority instruction in this context. Grapefruit juice interaction is more commonly associated with certain medications but not specifically with prednisone. Taking prednisone at bedtime to prevent drowsiness is not a key instruction related to its administration.

3. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

4. A client is receiving discharge instructions for long-term use of Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Stop taking the medication if you experience swelling.
• B. The provider will monitor your weight regularly.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. You may notice decreased appetite while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because long-term use of Prednisone can lead to weight gain, necessitating regular weight monitoring by the healthcare provider to manage any potential complications. Prednisone often causes fluid retention, leading to weight gain, hence the need for weight monitoring. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because swelling is not a typical reason to stop Prednisone, taking it on an empty stomach is not usually required, and Prednisone commonly increases appetite rather than decreases it.

5. A client has a new prescription for Raltegravir. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. This medication prevents the virus from entering the cell.
• B. This medication prevents the virus from leaving the cell.
• C. This medication blocks the virus from attaching to the cell.
• D. This medication blocks the virus from replicating in the cell.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Raltegravir works by blocking the integrase enzyme, preventing the virus from integrating its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. By inhibiting this process, viral replication within the host cell is halted. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Raltegravir's mechanism of action specifically targets viral replication within the cell, not virus entry, exit, or attachment to the cell.

Similar Questions