a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for an electroencephalogram eeg which of the following statements by the client indicates a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that flashes of light or pictures are often used during the procedure to assess the brain's response to stimuli. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing hair, receiving a sedative, and avoiding eating are not directly related to the EEG procedure.

2. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to filter it effectively. While limiting sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day and restricting protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day are important in managing kidney disease, the primary concern for this patient population is to control phosphorus levels. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the kidneys. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate recommendation in this scenario.

3. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.

4. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

5. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about caring for clients who have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with Alzheimer's disease are at risk of wandering and becoming lost. Providing supervision helps prevent them from getting injured or lost. Choice A is incorrect because extensive details may overwhelm clients with Alzheimer's. Choice B is incorrect because limiting activities can lead to boredom and behavioral issues. Choice C is incorrect because speaking calmly and at a moderate volume helps to reduce agitation and confusion in clients with Alzheimer's.

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